Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Students working for their first degree at university are called undergraduates. Then they take their degree we say they graduate, and then they are called graduates. If they continue studying at university after they have graduated, they are called post-graduates. Full-time university students spend all their free time studying. They have no other employment. Their course usually lasts for three or four years. Medical students have to follow a course lasting for six or seven years. Then they graduate as doctors. In Britain, full-time university students have three terms of about ten weeks in each year. During these terms they go to lectures or they study by themselves. Many students become members of academic societies and sports clubs and take part in their activities. Between the university terms they have vacations (or holiday periods). Their vacations are long, but of course they can use them to study at home.

Question 1: Students who continue studying at university after having graduated are called

                .

A. graduates    B. pre-graduates          C. undergraduates       D. post-graduates

Question 2: The word “graduate” in line 2 is closest in meaning to                     .

A. finish studying       B. start studying          C. study          D. learn

Question 3: According to the passage, the  full-time university students have                  of about 10 weeks in each year.

A. two terms   B. four terms   C. seven terms            D. three terms

Question 4: The word “employment” in line 4 refers to the                 .

A. work           B. music          C. playD. money

Question 5: Medical students have to follow a course lasting for                   .

A. four to five years    B. only 4 years            C. six or seven years D. about 5 years

Question 6: The word “vacations” in line 9 could be best replaced by                     .

A. times           B. holidays      C. visits           D. picnics

Question 7: According to the passage, students working for their first  degree at                      are called undergraduates.

A. an university           B. laboratory C. university D. library

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as full-time university students?

A. have other work                 B. go to lectures

C. study by themselves                       D. become members of sports clubs

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is difficult to write rules that tell exactly when we should apologize, but it is not difficult to learn how. If we have done something to hurt someone’s feeling or if we have been impolite or rude, we should apologize. An apology indicates that we realize we have made a mistake, and we are sorry for it. It is a way of expressing our regret for something. When we apologize, we admit our wrongdoing, usually offer a reason for it, and express regret.

The simplest way to apologize is to say “I’m sorry”, but often that is not enough. Let’s take a common situation. Mario is late for class and enters the classroom, interrupting the teacher in the middle of the class. What does he do? The most polite action is usually to take a seat as quietly as possible and apologize later. But if the teacher stops and waits for him to say something, he could apologize simply “I’m sorry I’m late”, ask permission to take his seat, and sit down. Naturally, more than this, a reason for the tardiness, is needed, but this is not the time or the place for it because he has already caused one interruption and doesn’t need to make it any longer or worse than it already is.

Question 9: When we apologize,                 

1. we express our sadness and unluckiness.
2. we realize our wrongdoing.
3. we express our happiness.
4. we admit our wrongdoing, offer a reason for it, and express regret.

Question 10: We should apologize                         _

1. when we feel tired and make mistake.
2. when we have been impolite, rude or done something to hurt someone’s feeling.
3. when we are angry with somebody about something.
4. when we are not happy or lose something.

Question 11: Is it difficult to learn how to apologize somebody?

A. Yes, it is     B. not difficult            C. No, it isn’t              D. No, hasn’t

Question 12: The word “rude” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by                 .

A. incorrect behavior B. polite          C. correct behavior     D. good behavior

Question 13: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as the most polite action in Mario’s case?

A. keep quiet   B. apologize later        C. interrupt the teacher           D. take a seat

Question 14: What is the simplest way to apologize?

A. We express our regret.       B. We said nothing.

C. We say “I’m sorry”.                       D. We admit our wrongdoing.

Question 15: It is                  to write the rules that tell exactly when we should apologize.

A. common      B. simple         C. easyD. difficult

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

On the fourth Thursday in November, in houses around the United States, families get together for a feast, or a large meal. Almost all families eat turkey and cranberry sauce for this meal, and have pumpkin pie for dessert. This feast is part of a very special day, the holiday of Thanksgiving.

In 1620 the Pilgrims made a difficult trip across the ocean from England. They landed in what is now Massachusetts. In England the Pilgrims had not been allowed to freely practice their religion. So they went to the New World in search of religious freedom.

The Pilgrims' first winter was very hard. Almost half the group died of cold, hunger and disease. But the Indians of Massachusetts taught the Pilgrims to plant corn, to hunt and to fish. When the next fall came, the Pilgrims had plenty of food. They were thankful to God and the Indians and had a feast to give thanks. They invited the Indians to join them. This was the first Thanksgiving. Thanksgiving became a national holiday many years later because of the effort of a woman named Sarah Hale. For forty years Sarah Hale wrote to each president and asked for a holiday of Thanksgiving. At last she was successful. In 1863 President Lincoln declared Thanksgiving a holiday.

How much is Thanksgiving today like the Pilgrims’ Thanksgiving? In many ways they are different. For example, historians think that the Pilgrims ate deer, not turkey. The idea of Thanksgiving, though, is very much the same: Thanksgiving is a day on which we celebrate and give thanks.

Question 16: When did the the Pilgrims make a difficult trip to across the ocean from England?

A. in 1863       B. in 1621       C. in 1830       D. in 1620

Question 17: The Pilgrims immigrated to the New World because            .

1. They wanted to search for religious freedom.
2. They wanted to be taught how to plant corn.
3. They wanted to have more land to cultivate.
4. They wanted to make a difficult trip.

Question 18: According to the passage, today’s Thanksgiving             .

1. is only celebrated in Massachusetts.
2. is a day on which the Pilgrims eat deer.
3. is different from the Pilgrims’s Thanksgiving in many ways.
4. is just like the Pilgrims’s Thanksgiving.

Question 19: Which of the following is NOT true about Thanksgiving?

1. It is celebrated on the fourth Thursday on November.
2. It is a day on which Americans celebrate and give thanks.
3. Americans usually have turkey, cranberry sauce and pumpkin pie for this occasion.
4. It became a national holiday thanks to President Lincoln’s 40-year efforts.

Question 20: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to             .

A. families       B. the Pilgrims             C. thanks         D. the Native Americans

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

As working women continue to receive better and better wages, housewives still work at home without receiving pay – checks. Should a woman who works at home, doing the housework and caring for children, be paid for her service? In a 1986 study at Cornell University, sociologists found that the value of the services of a housewife averaged $$ 11,600 a year. This rate was based on a family composed of a husband, wife, and three young children. The $$ 11,600 is what the husband would have to pay if he hired others to take over his wife’s household chores. The researchers concluded that it would be fair for husbands to pay wives according to federal guidelines for minimum wages.

Another plan for rewarding women who work at home has been suggested by a former Secretary of Health and Human Services. He says that full-time housewives should be allowed to pay social security taxes, with their employers contributing part of the payment. He feels that the

present system is unfair. He said, “ If you stay at home and raise a family, nobody will give you credit for it.”

Question 21: What is the main purpose of this passage ?

1. To suggest that housewives should be paid for their household chores.
2. To ask men to treat wives better.
3. To encourage women to go out to work.
4. To suggest that men should share the housework with their wives.

Question 22: A housewife’s services in a family of five people are worth_ .

A. $$ 160 a mouth on average B. nearly $$ 1,000 a mouth on average.

C. more than $$ 1,000 a mouth on average.     D. $$ 1,600 a mouth on average.

Question 23: According to the researchers, husbands should             .

1. pay wages to their wives for their housework.
2. hire others to take over their wives’ household chores.
3. help their wives with the housework.
4. care for the children.

Question 24: The word “employers” in the passage refers to                       .

A. their sponsors         B. their husband          C. their owners           D. their bosses

Question 25: What is NOT true about the passage?

1. Full-time housewives are allowed to pay social security taxes.
2. Women who go to work get more offers than housewives
3. Unlike working women, housewives get no pay for housework.
4. Housewives’services should be rewarded.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is a characteristic of human nature that people like to get together and have fun, and people live during America's frontier days were no exception. However, because life was hard and the necessities of day-to-day living took up their time, it was common for recreation to be combined with activities necessary for survival. One example of such a form of recreation was logrolling. Many frontier areas were heavily wooded, and in order to settle an area it was necessary to move the trees. A settler could cut down the trees alone, but help was needed to move the cut trees. After a settler had cut a bunch of trees, he would then invite is neighbours over for a logrolling. A

logrolling is a community event where families got together for a combination of work and fun. The women would bring food and have a much needed and infrequent opportunity to relax and chat with friends, the children would play together exuberantly, and the men would hold lively competitions that involved rolling logs from place to place as quickly as possible. This was a day of fun for everyone involved, but as its foundation was the need to clear the land.

Question 26: The main idea of the passage is that in America's frontier days                  .

1. people combined work with recreation
2. people cleared land by rolling logs
3. it was necessary for early settlers to clear the land
4. a logrolling involved the community

Question 27: The expression day-to-day could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. daytime      B. every day    C. day after day          D. today

Question 28: According to the passage, what did people have to do first to settle an area?

A. Develop recreation ideas   B. Build farms

C. Get rid of the trees             D. Invite neighbors over

Question 29: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about a logrolling?

A. It involved a lot of people. B. It could be enjoyable.

C. There could be a lot of movement.            D. It was rather quiet.

Question 30: This passage would probably be assigned reading in which of the following courses?

A. Forestry                  B. Environmental Studies

C. Psychology             D. History

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

People travel for a lot of reasons: Some tourists go to see battlefields or religious shrines. Others are looking for culture, or simply want to have their pictures taken in front of famous places. But most European tourists are looking for a sunny beach to lie on.

Northern Europeans are willing to pay a lot of money and put up with a lot of inconveniences for the sun because they have so little of it. Residents of cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam spend a tot of their winter in the dark because the days are so short, and much of the rest of the year in the rain. This is the reason why the Mediterranean has always

attracted them. Every summer, more than 25 million people travel to Mediterranean resorts and beaches for their vacation. They all come for the same reason, sun!

The huge crowds mean lots of money for the economies of Mediterranean countries. Italy’s 30,000 hotels are booked solid every summer. And 13 million people camp out on French beaches, parks and roadsides. Spain’s long sandy coastline attracts more people than anywhere else. 37 million tourists visit yearly, or one tourist for every person living in Spain.

But there are signs that the area is getting more tourists than it can handle. The Mediterranean is already one of the most polluted seas on earth. And with increased tourism, it’s getting worse. The French can’t figure out what to do with all the garbage left by campers around St. Tropez. And in many places, swimming is dangerous because of pollution.

None of this, however, is spoiling anyone’s fun. The Mediterranean gets more popular every year with tourists. Obviously, they don’t go there for clean water and solitude. They tolerate traffic jams and seem to like crowded beaches. They don’t even mind the pollution. No matter how dirty the water is, the coastline still looks beautiful. And as long as the sun shines, it’s still better than sitting in the cold rain in Berlin, London, or Oslo.

Question 31: In paragraph 2, cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam are mentioned

              .

1. to prove that they have got more tourism than they handle.
2. to tell us how wealthy their people are.
3. to suggest that these cities lack places of historic interest and scenic beauty.
4. to show that they are not good cities in terms of geography and climate.

Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following factors might spoil the tourists’ fun at Mediterranean resorts and beaches?

A. Polluted water        B. Traffic jams            C. Rainy weather        D. Crowded buses

Question 33: The writer seems to imply that Europeans travel mostly for the reason that             .

1. they want to see historic remains or religious spots.
2. they would like to take pictures in front of famous sites.
3. they wish to escape from the cold, dark and rainy days back at home.

4. they are interested in different cultural traditions and social customs.

Question 34: The latter half of the last sentence in paragraph 3, “or one tourist for every person living in Spain” means .

1. every Spanish is visited by a tourist every year.
2. every person living in Spain has to take care of a tourist annually.
3. every year almost as many tourists visit Spain as there are  people  living  in  that  country.
4. all the 37 million people living in Spain are tourists.

Question 35: The word “tolerate” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _ .

A. reject           B. endure        C. exclude       D. neglect

Question 36: The word “solid” in paragraph 3 means most nearly the same as              .

A. having no spaces inside.    B. seeming to be hard to book.

C. having less people than normal.     D. being uncomfortable to live in.

Question 37: According to the passage, which of the  following  countries  attracts  more  tourists than the others?

A. Greece        B. France         C. Spain          D. Italy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so quickly that they don’t even know what their own lives will be like in a few years’ time. What follows is not science fiction. It is how experts see the future.

You are daydreaming behind the steering wheel; is it too dangerous? No! That’s no problem because you have it on automatic pilot, and with its hi-tech computers and cameras, your car “know” how to get you home safe and sound.

What is for lunch? In the old days you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or a pizza. Now you use your diagnostic machine to find out which foods your body needs. If your body needs more vegetables and less fat, your food-preparation machine makes you a salad.

After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need to do your work. Thanks to your information screen and your latest generation computer, you needn’t go to the office any more. The information screen shows an urgentmessage from a co- worker in Brazil. You can instantly send back a reply to him and go on to deal with other matters.

Question 38: What does “its” in line 5 refer to?

A. the future    B. your home  C. your car      D. the steering wheel

Question 39: What of the following statement is true about life in the future?

1. People will go to work as they do today.
2. Hi-tech equipment will be out of the question.
3. It will be dangerous to drive cars because they are too fast.
4. People can have balanced diets for their meal.

Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true about life in the future?

1. Eating is a problem because food contains too much fat
2. There’s no need to concentrate much when driving.
3. Contacts between people are almost instant.
4. Getting information is a matter of just a few seconds.

Question 41: According to the passage, what do people use a diagnostic machine for?

A. To make food for them.     B. To find out which foods their body needs

C. To provide them with food.           D. To sell food for humans.

Question 42: Which “reply” CLOSET in meaning to?

A. replay         B. request.       C. answer        D. question

Question 43: The word “urgent” in the last paragraph probably means .

A. expected     B. pressing      C. unnecessary            D. hurry

Question 44: What is the main idea of the passage?

1. What life is like in the future.
2. The role of the computer in future life.
3. What foods people will eat in the future.
4. Life in the future will be the same as life at present.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn

(1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman.

With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of man against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.

Question 45: The main subject of the passage is_                .

A. Melville’s travels               B. Moby Dick

C. Melville’s personal background    D. the popularity of Melville’s novels.

Question 46: The word “basis” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                  .

A. backgroundB. message      C. bottom        D. dissertation

Question 47: According to the passage, Melville’s early novels were                    .

A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional

C. all about his work on whaling ships           D. based on his travel experience

Question 48: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because                        .

1. he had unofficially left his ship
2. he was on leave while his ship was in port
3. he had finished his term of duty
4. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti

Question 49: How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville’s popularity?

A. His popularity remained as strong as ever.            B. It caused his popularity to decrease.

C. His popularity increased immediately.      D. It had no effect on his popularity.

Question 50: According to the passage, Moby Dick is                    .

A. symbolic of humanity fighting the universe          B. a single-faceted work

C. a short story about a whaleD. a 47 adventure

Question 51: In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?

A. 1849           B. 1837           C. 1847           D. 1841

Question 52: The word “metamorphosis” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to                  .

A. descent       B. circle           C. mysticism D. change

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business, underpinned by the trust of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and confidentiality. After early beginnings using horseback and stagecoach, and although cars and trucks later replaced stagecoaches and wagons, the Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and exciting postal innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until the Civil War. Then from 1862, by sorting the mail on board moving trains, the Post Office Department was able to decentralize its operations as railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and speed up mail delivery. This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service, railway mail clerks handled 93% of all non-local mail and by 1905 the service had over 12,000 employees.

Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at stations without stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared the catcher arm which would then snatch the incoming mailbag in the blink of an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing mailbag. Experienced clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and spoke with pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves and feel of the track to warn them of an upcoming catch. They also worked under the greatest pressure and their jobs were considered to be exhausting and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs they could find themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies.

As successful as it was, “mail-on-the-fly” still had its share of glitches. If they hoisted the train’s catcher arm too soon, they risked hitting switch targets, telegraph poles or semaphores, which would rip the catcher arm off the train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange.

Question 53: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?

1. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerks.
2. The development of the mail roads during the second half of the 19th century enabled Post Office Department to focus on timeliness.

3. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up mail delivery than the safety of its clerks.
4. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane.

Question 54: The word “elite” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to                      .

A. majority      B. superior       C. more capable          D. leader

Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?

1. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail.
2. Improvements in mail handling and delivery.
3. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping.
4. The skills of experienced clerks.

Question 56: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service commenced in                  .

A. 1874           B. 1842           C. 1832           D. 1905

Question 57: The word “glitches” in the third paragraph can be replaced by_              .

A. accidents    B. blames        C. advantages D. problems

Question 58: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

1. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the incoming bag.
2. Clerks couldn’t often see what they were doing.
3. The Railway Mail clerk’s job was considered elite because it was safe and exciting.
4. Despite their success, railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion of all non-local

mail.

Question 59: The public expects the following three services in handling and delivery of mail except .

A. safety         B. accuracy     C. confidentiality        D. timeliness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Each person has different learning preferences and styles that benefit them. Some may find they have a dominant learning style. Others prefer different learning styles in different circumstances. There is no right or wrong answer to which learning style is best for you - or mix of learning styles. However, by discovering and better understanding your own learning styles, you can employ techniques that will improve the rate and quality of your learning.

If you prefer lessons that employ images to teach, you are a visual learner. Visual learners retain information better when it is presented in pictures, videos, graphs and books. They frequently draw pictures or develop diagrams when trying to comprehend a subject or memorize rote information. If you are a visual learner, use pictures, images, color, diagrams and other visual media in your note taking, test preparation and studying. Whenever possible, use pictures instead of text. Try to develop diagrams to comprehend concepts and storyboards to remember important sequences and relationships.

Aural (auditory) learners retain information better when it’s presented in lecture format, via speeches, audio recordings, and other forms of verb communication. While a visual learner would prefer to read a book or watch a video, auditory learners would prefer to attend a lecture or listen to a book on tap. Aural learners are also big on sound and music. They can typically sing, play an instrument and identify different sounds. If you are an aural learner, integrate auditory media, listening techniques, sound, rhyme, or even music in your learning and studying. You may also consider using background music and sounds to help you with visualization of processes and systems. For example, if you’re practicing fight procedures, you may consider playing a recording of an aircraft in the background as you study. Replacing the lyrics of a favorite song with information you are learning is a very powerful way to memorize large amounts of information for aural learning. Use this technique and you will never forget the information again

Question 60: What does the passage mainly discuss?

1. Features and techniques of two learning styles.
2. Visual and aural learners’ problems and solutions.
3. Why and how to understand your learning styles.
4. What and how to use your learning techniques.

Question 61: By discovering and better understanding your own learning styles, you can improve

              .

A. Your learning quality and quantity.           B. Your learning rate.

C. Your learning styles.          D. Your learning quality and speed.

Question 62: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to              .

A. visual learners        B. pictures       C. videos         D. graphs

Question 63: According to the passage, one benefit of diagrams is               .

A. to understand concepts.     B. to remember sequences.

C. to understand story boards.            D. to use pictures not texts.

Question 64: All of the following statements are TRUE about visual learners EXCEPT               .

A. They employ images to teach.       B. They remember graphs well.

C. They prefer pictures to texts.         D. They use story boards for relationships. Question 65: According to the passage, the benefit of listening to music while learning and studying is that it                                            .

A. is a hobby or an interest     B. attracts your attention

C. makes you feel relaxed      D. helps you visualize processes and systems

Question 66: The author suggests that to remember lessons, aural learners can               . .

1. forget melody
2. learn by heart lyrics
3. sing along
4. write songs with your favorite lyrics and information you’re learning.

Question 67: It can be inferred from the passage that a person’s learning style               .

A. is completely different from others’.         B. can never be best for them.

C. determines learning quality.           D. has its effective technique.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both popularity and production with 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although much of this tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks its fair share. According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the U.S population on any given day. Black tea or green tea – iced, spiced or instant – tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar with major tea producer in Africa and South America and throughout Asia.

Tea is made from the leaves from an evergreen plant, Camellia saneness, which grows tall and lush in tropical region. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new buds called flush appear; they are plucked off by hand. Even in today’s world of modern agricultural machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method. Ideally,

only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked. This new growth produces the highest quality tea.

After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks, for 18 to 20 hours. During this process, the tea softens and become limp. Next, dependent on the type of tea being product, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then fermented under controlled condition of heat and humidity. For green tea, the whole leaves are often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped. Producing black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin darken. After fermentation, black tea is dried in vats to produce its rich brown or black color.

No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage was discovered in 2737 B.C. by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from camellia dropped into his drinking water as it was boiling over a fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen Nung drank the resulting liquid and proclaimed that the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing. Though this account cannot be documented, it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in China and spread to other parts of Asia, then Europe, and ultimately to America colonies around 1650.

With about half the caffeine content of coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to reduce, but not necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less acidic than coffee and therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea drinking since the National Cancer Institute publishes its finding on the antioxidant properties of tea. But whether tea is enjoyed for it perceived health benefit, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups continue to be filled daily with the world’ most popular beverage.

Question 68: According to the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting?

1. It is totaling done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery
2. It is longer done in China.
3. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time.
4. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant.

Question 69: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. tea pickers              B. new buds    C. evergreen plants     D. tropical regions

Question 70: Which of the following is NOT true about the tea production process?

1. Black tea develops its dark color during fermentation and final drying.
2. Green tea requires a long fermentation process.

3. Green tea is often steamed to keep its color.
4. Black tea goes through two phases during production.

Question 71: According to the passage, what is TRUE about origin of tea drinking?

1. It began during the Shen Nung Dynasty.
2. It may begin some time around 1950.
3. It is unknown when tea first became popular.
4. It was originally produced from Camilla plants in Europe.

Question 72: The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following words?

A. decrease      B. increase       C. reduce         D. remove

Question 73: According to the passage, why someone would choose to drink tea instead of coffee?

1. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee.
2. Because it has higher nutritional content than coffee.
3. Because it helps prevent heart attacks.
4. Because it has more caffeine than coffee does.

Question 74: What best describes the topic of the passage?

A. A. Tea consumption and production.          B. The two most popular types of tea.

C. The benefits of tea consumption worldwide. D. How tea is produced and brewed. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The economic expansion prompted by the Second World War triggered a spectacular population boom in the West. Of course, the region was no stranger to population booms. Throughout much of its history, western settlement had been characterized by spurts, rather than by a pattern of gradual and steady population growth, beginning with the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's. The decade after the First World War - the 1920's - witnessed another major surge of people pouring into the West, particularly into urban areas. But the economic depression of the 1930's brought this expansion to a halt; some of the more sparsely settled parts of the region actually lost population as migrants sought work in more heavily industrialized areas. By 1941 when the United States entered the Second World War and began to mobilize, new job opportunities were created in the western part of the nation.

If the expansion of industries, such as shipbuilding and aircraft manufacturing, was most striking on the pacific coast, it also affected interior cities like Denver, Phoenix, and Salt Lake City. Equally dramatic were the effects of the establishment of aluminum plants in Oregon and Washington and the burgeoning steel industry in Utah and California. The flow of people into these areas provided an enormous impetus to the expansion of the service industries - banks, health care services and schools. Although strained to the limit by the influx of newcomers, western communities welcomed the vast reservoir of new job opportunities. At the same time, the unprecedented expansion of government installations in the West, such as military bases, created thousands of new civilian openings. As land had served as a magnet for western migrants in the late nineteenth century, so wartime mobilization set in motion another major expansion of population. Indeed, it could be said that the entire western United States became a giant boomtown during the Second World War. This was especially true of California. Of the more than eight million people who moved into the West in the decade after 1940, almost one-half went to the Pacific coast. In fact, between 1940 and 1950, California's population surged by more than three million people.

Question 75: What is the main point of the passage?

1. California dominated the economic growth of the West during the Second World War.
2. Industrial growth during the 1940's attracted large numbers of people to the West.
3. The military drew people away from civilian jobs during the 1940's.
4. The West experienced gradual and steady economic growth from 1900 to 1940.

Question 76: The word "triggered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to            .

A. was connected to    B. generated    C. interfered with       D. illuminated

Question 77: Why does the author mention “the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's” in the first paragraph?

1. As causes of gradual population growth
2. As contrasts to late patterns of population
3. As illustrations of a market economy.
4. As examples of western population booms.

Question 78: According to the passage, the depression of the 1930's caused which of the following?

1. 1. A lack of population growth in the West.

1. 2. The building of new suburbs.
   3. A creation of more job opportunities.
   4. A growth in immigration from abroad.

Question 79: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to            .

A. expansion  B. Denver        C. manufacturing        D. the Pacific coast

Question 80: The passage suggests that industrialization in the West led to all of the following EXCEPT              .

A. An increase in school construction.           B. Improved access to doctors.

C. An increase in the number of banks.          D. A reduction in the price of land. Question 81: It can be inferred from the passage that the principal cause of California’s population surge between 1940 and 1950 was                                     .

1. the increased availability of land.
2. people’s desire to live in a warm, coastal climate.
3. the industrial mobilization necessitated by the Second World War.
4. overcrowding in urban areas in other regions of the United States.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The Development of Refrigeration

Cold storage, or refrigeration, is keeping food at temperatures between 32 and 45 degrees F in order to delay the growth of microorganisms - bacteria, molds, and yeast - that cause food to spoil. Refrigeration produces few changes in food, so meats, fish, eggs, milk, fruits, and vegetables keep their original flavor, color, and nutrition. Before artificial refrigeration was invented, people stored perishable food with ice or snow to lengthen its storage time. Preserving food by keeping it in an ice-filled pit is a 4,000-year-old art. Cold storage areas were built in basements, cellars, or caves, lined with wood or straw, and packed with ice. The ice was transported from mountains, or harvested from local lakes or rivers, and delivered in large blocks to homes and businesses.

Artificial refrigeration is the process of removing heat from a substance, container, or enclosed area, to lower its temperature. The heat is moved from the inside of the container to the outside. A refrigerator uses the evaporation of a volatile liquid, or refrigerant, to absorb heat. In most types of refrigerators, the refrigerant is compressed, pumped through a pipe, and allowed to vaporize. As the liquid turns to vapor, it loses heat and gets colder because the molecules of vapor

use energy to leave the liquid. The molecules left behind have less energy and so the liquid becomes colder. Thus, the air inside the refrigerator is chilled.

Scientists and inventors from around the world developed artificial refrigeration during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. William Cullen demonstrated artificial refrigeration in Scotland in 1748, when he let ethyl ether boil into a partial vacuum. In 1805, American inventor Oliver Evans designed the first refrigeration machine that used vapor instead of liquid. In 1842, physician John Gorrie used Evans's design to create an air-cooling apparatus to treat yellow-fever patients in a Florida hospital. Gorrie later left his medical practice and experimented with ice making, and in 1851 he was granted the first U.S. patent for mechanical refrigeration. In the same year, an Australian printer, James Harrison, built an ether refrigerator after noticing that when he cleaned his type with ether it became very cold as the ether evaporated. Five years later, Harrison introduced vapor-compression refrigeration to the brewing and meatpacking industries.

Brewing was the first industry in the United States to use mechanical refrigeration extensively, and in the 1870s, commercial refrigeration was primarily directed at breweries. German-born Adolphus Busch was the first to use artificial refrigeration at his brewery in St. Louis. Before refrigeration, brewers stored their beer in caves, and production was constrained by the amount of available cave space. Brewing was strictly a local business since beer was highly perishable and shipping it any distance would result in spoilage. Busch solved the storage problem with the commercial vapor- compression refrigerator. He solved the shipping problem with the newly invented refrigerated railcar, which was insulated with ice bunkers in each end. Air came in on the top, passed through the bunkers, and circulated through the car by gravity. In solving Busch's spoilage and storage problems, refrigeration also revolutionized an entire industry. By 1891, nearly every brewery was equipped with mechanical refrigerating machines.

The refrigerators of today rely on the same basic principle of cooling caused by the rapid evaporation and expansion of gases. Until 1929, refrigerators used toxic gases - ammonia, methyl chloride, and sulfur dioxide - as refrigerants. After those gases accidentally killed several people, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) became the standard refrigerant. However, they were found to be harmful to the earth's ozone layer, so refrigerators now use a refrigerant called HFC 134a, which is less harmful to the ozone.

Question 82: What is the main reason that people developed methods of refrigeration?

1. 1. They wanted to improve the flavor and nutritional value of food.

1. 2. They needed to slow the natural processes that cause food to spoil.
   3. They needed to use for the ice that formed on lakes and rivers.
   4. They wanted to expand the production of certain industries.

Question 83: The word “perishable” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to             .

A. capable of spoiling                         B. uncooked

C. of animal origin                  D. highly nutritious

Question 84: What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about cold storage before the invention of artificial refrigeration?

1. It kept food cold for only about a week.
2. It was dependent on a source of ice or snow.
3. It required a container made of mental or wood.
4. It was not a safe method of preserving meat.

Question 85: Artificial refrigeration involves all of the following processes EXCEPT            .

1. the pumping of water vapor through a pipe.
2. the rapid expansion of certain gases.
3. the evaporation of a volatile liquid.
4. the transfer of heat from one place to another.

Question 86: According to the passage, who was the first person to use artificial refrigeration for a practical purpose?

A. William Cullen       B. Oliver Evans           C. John Gorrie            D. Adolphus Busch

Question 87: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to            .

A. printer         B. refrigerator             C. type            D. ether

Question 88: The word “constrained” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to            .

A. restricted    B. spoiled        C. improved    D. alternated

Question 89: According to the passage, the first refrigerated railcar used what material as a cooling agent?

A. ether           B. ice  C. ammonia     D. CFCs

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Today, roller skating is easy and fun. But a long time ago, it wasn't easy at all. Before 1750, the idea of skating didn't exist. That changed because of a man named Joseph Merlin. Merlin's work

was making musical instruments. In his spare time he liked to play the violin. Joseph Merlin was a man of ideas and dreams. People called him a dreamer.

One day Merlin received an invitation to attend a fancy dress ball. He was very pleased and a little excited. As the day of the party came near, Merlin began to think how to make a grand entrance at the party. He had an idea. He thought he would get a lot of attention if he could skate into the room.

Merlin tried different ways to make himself roll. Finally, he decided to put two wheels under each shoe. These were the first roller skates. Merlin was very proud of his invention as he dreamed of arriving at the party on wheels while playing the violin.

On the night of the party Merlin rolled into the room playing his violin. Everyone was astonished to see him. There was just one problem. Merlin had no way to stop his roller skates. He rolled on and on. Suddenly, he ran into a huge mirror that was hanging on the wall. Down fell the mirror, breaking to pieces. Nobody forgot Merlin's grand entrance for a long time!

Question 90: The passage is mainly about                                .

1. how people enjoyed themselves in the 18th century
2. a strange man
3. how roller skating began
4. an unusual party

Question 91: The word "astonished" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by_               .

A. tired            B. surprised    C. embarrassed            D. polite

Question 92: Merlin put wheels under his shoes in order to                         .

A. impress the party guests     B. arrive at the party sooner

C. show his skill in walking on wheels          D. test his invention

Question 93: The word "ball" in paragraph 2 probably means                   .

A. game           B. party           C. round object           D. match

Question 94: People thought Merlin was a dreamer because he                       .

A. was a gifted musician         B. invented the roller skates

C. often gave others surprises D. was full of imagination

Question 95: What is the main point the writer is trying to make in the last paragraph?

1. Merlin got himself into trouble.
2. Merlin succeeded beyond expectation.

3. The roller skates needed further improvement.
4. The party guests took Merlin for a fool.

Question 96: The word "These" in paragraph 3 refers to .

A. wheels        B. roller skates            C. different ways        D. shoes

Read the following passage and mark the letter A , B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

When we moved to our new house near the sea, I was eight years old. Even before that I had spent every summer messing about on boats. My dad had taught me to sail before I learnt to ride a bike so I knew how I wanted to spend my time at the new house- I was going to get my own boat and sail it everyday. The house was only a few meters from the water's edge, and in rough weather the waves would come crashing into the front garden. I used to sit with my nose pressed to the glass, fascinated by the power of the ocean. I grew up watching the skies to see if it was going to rain; would I be going sailing that afternoon or not?

Of course I sometimes wished I could live in the town like my friends. I used to get angry with my parents, who had taken early retirement because they seemed incapable of getting anywhere on time. Dad drove me the eight miles to school everyday, but I was often late because he had been walking on the cliffs earlier in the morning and had lost track of time. When I was taking my university entrance exams, I used to stay over at a friend's in town, just in case. All in all, I was lucky to grow up by the sea and I still love to sail.

Question 97: At the age of eight, the writer's house was               .

A. in the town             B. under the mountain            C. on boat       D. by the sea

Question 98: The word "rough"in the passage  is closest in meaning to                       .

A. forceful       B. beautiful     C. careful        D. easy

Question 99: The writer's father retired early because                       .

1. he walked on the cliffs every morning.
2. he was unable to get anywhere on time.
3. he had to drive his kid to school everyday
4. he lost rack of time.

Question 100: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT                      .

1. the writer didn't know how to sail.

2. house to school was 8 miles.
3. the waves came crashing into the writer's front garden in bad weather.
4. the write moved to a new house when he was 8.

Question 101: Growing up by the sea, the writer felt                       .

A. excited        B. angry          C. unlucky       D. lucky

Question 102: The writer learnt to sail                       .

A. When he/ she was eight.    B. when his family moved to a new house

C. before going to school.       D. before learning to ride a bike

Question 103: When taking the university entrance exams,                       .

1. the weather was terrible
2. the writer's family moved to a new house by the sea
3. the writer had to live in a friend's house
4. the writer's father drove him/ her to university.

Question 104: The phrase "All in all "in the passage  is closest in meaning to                       .

A. In all           B. In the whole            C. On general              D. On the whole

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Mr. Faugel was convinced that students’ nervousness had affected their scores; to reduce the anxiety of these students who had already been tested, he gave 22 of them a beta blocker before readministration of the test. Their scores improved significantly. The other 8 students (who did not receive the beta blockers) improved only slightly. Second-time test-takers nationwide had average improvements which were similar to those in Faugel's non-beta blocker group.

Beta blockers are prescription drugs which have been around for 25 years. These medications, which interfere with the effects of adrenalin, have been used for heart conditions and for minor stress such as stage fright. Now they are used for test anxiety. These drugs seem to help test-takers who have low scores because of test fright, but not those who do not know the material. Since there can be side effects from these beta blockers, physicians are not ready to prescribe them routinely for all test-takers.

Question 105: The word “reduce” in paragraph 1 most nearly means                 .

A. build up      B. lessen          C. increase       D. maximize

Question 106: The word “interfere” in paragraph 2 most nearly means                 .

A. prescribe     B. aid              C. help             D. hinder

Question 107: Why are beta clockers not prescribed regularly?

A. Students are expected to do poorly.           B. They cause test anxiety.

C. The drugs are only 25 years old.                D. There are side effects.

Question 108: According to the passage,                         

1. all people can take beta blockers.
2. beta blockers are widely prescribed.
3. beta blockers work only to improve test scores if the test-taker truly knows the material.
4. beta blockers work only on test anxiety.

Question 109: The expression “readministration” in this passage refers to                   .

1. 1. giving the test again to both groups after beta blockers have been administered to one group.
   2. giving the test again to people without administering beta blockers.
   3. giving the beta blockers without retesting.
   4. giving the test to both groups of test-takers and then giving them beta blockers.

Question 110: What possible use for beta blockers was NOT discussed in this passage?

A. Pain relief               B. Anxiety test            C. Heart conditions     D. Minor stress

Question 111: Beta blockers work on some physical and emotional symptoms because they

                .

1. interfere with the side effects of adrenalin
2. primarily change human thought processes
3. produce side effects worse than the symptoms
4. fool a person into a healthier stance

Question 112: Faugel’s research showed that beta blockers given to his sample               

1. increased scores the same as the national average.
2. decreased scores.
3. increased scores less than the national average.
4. increased scores much more than the national average.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Today I’d like to begin a discussion on the problem of the heating up the earth. First, we’ll touch on the relationship between fluorocarbons and the ozone layer. You probably remember that the ozone layer is the protective shield around the earth. It is important to all life, because it filters out harmful ultraviolet light from the sun. Ozone itself, a form of oxygen, is regularly made by the action of the sun in the upper atmosphere. It is also regularly destroyed by natural chemical processes.

The problem now is that too much of the ozone layer is being destroyed. Scientists suspect that certain chemicals, such as fluorocarbons, are contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer. And how do we use fluorocarbons? The most common uses are in spray cans and cooling systems. The chemical pollution from these fluorocarbons can account for some of the ozone losses that have been reported. There are, however, new studies linking the sun itself to the depletion of the ozone layer. We’ll go into that new study more next time.

Question 113: Who is the most likely speaker?

A. A mechanic            B. A chemist               C. A professor             D. A doctor

Question 114: What does the word “filters out” in paragraph 1 probably mean?

A. prevents      B. separates                 C. keeps          D. stops

Question 115: What is the most important purpose of the ozone layer?

A. Shielding the sun                B. Protecting the earth

C. Destroying chemicals         D. Providing fluorocarbons

Question 116: What does the word “depletion” in paragraph 2 probably mean?

A. deletion      B. deployment            C. departure                D. destruction

Question 117: What is the ozone layer made of?

A. Oxygen       B. Shields        C. Ultraviolet light      D. Fluorocarbons

Question 118: The speaker’s main topic is                   .

A. air-conditioning systems           B. fluorocarbons and the ozone layer

C. ultraviolet light                          D. the use of spray cans

Question 119: What will the speaker probably discuss next?

1. The make-up of the ozone layer.
2. The sun as a cause of ozone layer depletion.
3. How to make air conditioners with fluorocarbons.
4. Harmful effects of ultraviolet light.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

A lot of advice is available for college leavers heading for their first job. In this article we consider the move to a second job. We are not concerned with those looking for a second temporary position while hunting for a permanent job. Nor are we concerned with those leaving an unsatisfactory job within the first few weeks. Instead, we will be dealing with those of you taking a real step on the career ladder, choosing a job to fit in with your ambitions now that you have learnt your way around, acquired some skills and have some idea of where you want to go.

What sort of job should you look for? Much depends on your long-term aim. You need to ask yourself whether you want to specialize in a particular field, work your way up to higher levels of responsibility or out of your current employment into a broader field.

Whatever you decide, you should choose your second job very carefully. You should be aiming to stay in it for two or three years. This job will be studied very carefully when you send your letter of application for your next job. It should show evidence of serious career planning. Most important, it should extend you, develop you and give you increasing responsibility. Incidentally, if you are interested in traveling, now is the time to pack up and go. You can do temporary work for a while when you return, pick up where you left off and get the second job then. Future potential employers will be relieved to see that you have got it out of your system, and are not likely to go off again.

Juliette Davidson spend her first year after leaving St. Aldate’s College working for three lawyers. It was the perfect first job in that “ OK ... they were very supportive people. I was gently introduced to the work, learnt my way around an office and improve my word processing skills. However, there was no scope for advancement. One day, I gave my notice, bought an air ticket and traveled for a year.”

Juliette now works as a Personal Assistant to Brenda Cleverdon, the Chief Executive of business in the Community. “In two and a half years I have become more able and my job has really grown”, she says. “ Right from the beginning my boss was very keen to develop me. My job title is the same as it was when I started but the duties have changed. From mainly typing and telephone work, I have progressed to doing most of the correspondence and budgets. I also have to deal with a variety of queries, coming from chairmen of large companies to people wanting to know how to

start their own business. Brenda involves me in all her work but also gives me specific projects to do and events to organize.”

Question 120: Who is intended to benefit from the advice given in the article?

1. 1. students who have just finished their studies
   2. people who are unhappy with their current job
   3. those who are interested in establishing a career
   4. people who change jobs regularly

Question 121: According to the writer, why is the choice of your second job important?

1. It will affect your future job prospects.
2. It will last longer than your first job.
3. It will be difficult to change if you don’t like it.
4. It should give you the opportunity to study.

Question 122: “It” in the passage refers to               .

A. first job       B. second job C. application D. career

Question 123: If you have a desire to travel, when does the writer suggest that you do it?

1. straight after you have left college
2. when you are unable to find a permanent job
3. after you have done some temporary work
4. between the first and second job

Question 124: What does the phrase “you have got it out of your system” in passage mean?

A. You have planned your career sensibly.    B. You are an experienced traveler.

C. You have satisfied your wish to travel.      D. You have learned to look after yourself.

Question 125: How did Juliette Davidson benefit from the experience of her first job?

1. It was good introduction to working in an office.
2. She met a variety of interesting people.
3. It enabled her to earn enough money to travel.
4. She learnt how to use a word processor.

Question 126: In what way is Juliette’s current job better her first job?

1. She has a more impressive job title.
2. She now know how to start her own business.
3. She has been able to extend her skills.

4. She is more involve in the community.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on the tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on the radio , from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one’s entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmarkers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 127: In the passage, the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” mostly implies that .

1. schooling prevents people discovering things
2. schooling takes place everywhere
3. all of life is an education
4. education is totally ruined by schooling

Question 128: What does the writer mean by saying “education quite often produces surprises”?

1. Educators often produce surprises.
2. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results.
3. Success of informal learning is predictable.
4. It’s surprising that we know little about other religions.

Question 129: Which of the following would the writer support?

1. Without formal education, people won’t be able to read and write.
2. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
3. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
4. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.

Question 130: According to the passage, the doers of education are           .

A. only respected grandparents          B. mostly famous scientists

C. mainly politicians               D. almost all people

Question 131: Which of the following is TRUE according to passage?

1. Education and schooling are quite different experience.
2. The best schools teach a variety of subjects.
3. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
4. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

Question 132: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to           .

A. workings of governments B. newest filmmarkers

C. political problems               D. high school students

Question 133: The word “all-inclusive” in the passage mostly means         _.

A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions

C. involving many school subjects     D. allowing no exceptions

Question 134: This passage is mainly aimed at _        .

1. telling the difference between the meaning of two related words “schooling” and “education”
2. telling a story about execellent teachers
3. listing and discussing several educational problems
4. giving examples of different schools

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there havebeen a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them - their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world, many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.

Question 135: The passage is mainly about                     .

1. why the Beatles split up after 7 years
2. the Beatles' fame and success
3. many people's ability to sing a Beatles song
4. how the Beatles became more successful than other groups

Question 136: The four boys of the Beatles _ .

A. came from the same family            B. were at the same age

C. came from a town in the north of EnglandD. received good training in music

Question 137: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to                     .

A. notorious    B. shocking     C. bad D. popular

Question 138: The first songs of the Beatles were                     .

A. written by black American B. broadcast on the radio

C. paid a lot of money            D. written by themselves

Question 139: What is NOT TRUE about the Beatles?

1. The members had no training in music.
2. They became famous when they wrote their own songs.
3. They had a long stable career.
4. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.

Question 140: The Beatles stopped their live performances because                     .

1. they had earned enough money
2. they did not want to work with each other
3. they spent more time writing their own songs
4. they were afraid of being hurt by fan

Question 141: The word “they” in line 10 refers to                     .

A. the first       B. the singers  C. the songs    D. the performances

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are essentially different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores instructions and information. In a calculator, the instructions are the various functions of arithmetic, which are permanently remembered by the machine and cannot be altered or added to. The information consists of the numbers keyed in.

An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an input unit to feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an output unit to display the result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip that contains the memory and processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the output unit, which is the display.

The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the key is a printed circuit board containing a set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair of lines in the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that key is stored in the memory. The processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair of lines to the processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key.

The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the temporary results that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary codes for the keys that have been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key,   are    held    in    temporary    cells    until    the    processing    unit    requires    them. When the equals key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation

code-for example, addition-and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and performs the operation on the two numbers. A full adder does the addition, and the result goes to the decoder in the calculator's microchip. This code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the calculation.

Question 142: The word "innovative" in line 1 could best be replaced by _                .

A. recent          B. important    C. revolutionary          D. complicated

Question 143: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers?

1. They can not store information in a memory.
2. They are less expensive than computers.
3. They have simple memory and processing units.
4. They are older than computers.

Question 144: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units?

A. the battery  B. the solar cells          C. the output unit        D. the microchip

Question 145: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is                   .

1. to control the keyboard
2. to store temporary results during calculation
3. to send codes to the display unit
4. to alter basic arithmetic instructions

Question 146: The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to                   .

A. the plus key            B. the processing unit C. the memory unit     D. the equals key

Question 147: The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. commands B. codes          C. locations     D. connections

Question 148: Which of the following could NOT be said about calculators?

1. The calculator's "thinking" takes place in the processing and memory units.
2. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly.
3. Calculators and computers are similar.
4. Pressing a key activates a calculator.

Question 149: What is the main purpose of the passage?

1. To discuss innovative developments in technology
2. To compare computers and calculators with other machines
3. To summarize the history of technology

4. To explain how a calculator works

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Facebook is a for-profit online social media and social networking service. The Facebook website was launched on February 4th, 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg, along with fellow Harvard College students and roommates. Since 2006, anyone age 13 and older has been allowed to become a registered user of Facebook though variations exist in minimum age requirement, depending on applicable local laws.

Over 25 million people in the Uk use Facebook. That’s 45% of population! And on average, each user spends over six hours a month on Facebook. Though not the highest this is a considerable number. Is Facebook is a dangerous obsession or just harmless fun? Seventeen-year-old Bethan has written on her blog about what it was like to stop using Facebook. I think I am a Facebook addict. I log on to Facebook everyday to chat to my friends real friends and loads of online friends. Sometimes I have ten conversations going at the same time. I upload photos and update my Facebook profile all the time. But recently I’ve started to feel worried if I am offline for more than a few hours. And then last week I forgot to meet a real friend because I was online! I’ve realised I could    have     a     problem.     So     I’ve     decided     to     give     it     up     for     a     while.   I found it really hard. Facebook and my friends demanded to know why I had left. I spent the first few evenings wondering what everyone was chatting on Facebook. I even phoned a couple of friends to find out. The fourth night I wasn’t quite so bad. I actually concentrated on my homework better and I had more time to watch my TV programmes. And I spoke to my friends during the day at school. At the end of the first week, I reactivated my account, I think Facebook is fun and it’s useful for posting messages to friends and sharing photos. But I’ll try not to spend so much time on it in the future.

Question 150: Which of the following is NOT true about Facebook users in UK?

1. 45% of the country’s population used Facebook.
2. More than 25 millions of Brits use Facebook.
3. The amount of time British users spent on Facebook is highest.
4. Averagely, 6 hours per month are spent by British users.

Question 151: The highlight word “it” in the passage refers to                   .

A. worrying                 B. facebook

C. a problem               D. meeting her real friend

Question 152: Facebook                   .

A. was non-profitable.            B. was launched solely by Mark Zuckerberg.

C. follows each country’s regulation. D. can be used by people of all ages.

Question 153: Which of the following is NOT the thing Bethan does as a Facebook addict?

1. be curious about Facebook activities when logging out.
2. have numerous online conversation at the same time.
3. use Facebook everyday
4. long to be offline nearly all the time.

Question 154: The word “applicable” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. different     B. unsuitable  C. relevant       D. opposite

Question 155: What does Bethan conclude about Facebook?

1. The best use of Facebook is to share photos and messages.
2. Facebook is not as good as TV.
3. Users should spend more time on Facebook.
4. Facebook is great as long as not too much time is spent on.

Question 156: What happened to make Bethan decide to quit Facebook for a while?

A. She forgot an offline meeting        B. She started to feel nervous

C. She had too many offline friends D. She uploaded too many photos

Question 157: When she decided to give up Facebook                   .

A. her friends didn’t care much          B. she found it too difficult to continue

C. she made progress after some days            D. she couldn’t focus on her homework Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of

Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red

oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood.

The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration pattems. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said.

Question 158: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT                           .

A. thermal changes     B. sounds        C. changes in color     D. smells

Question 159: It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees                             .

A. has been unproductive up to now B. is no longer sponsored by the government

C. was conducted many years ago      D. is continuing

Question 160: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the distress signals of trees?

A. attacks by insects               B. experiments by scientists

C. torn roots                D. lack of water

Question 161: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. The effect of insects on trees.        B. The vibrations produced by insects.

C. The mission of the U.S Forest Service.      D. The sounds made by trees.

Question 162: The word “plight” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _               .

A. condition    B. cry  C. need            D. agony

Question 163: It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees                 

.

1. are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
2. cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
3. fall into the 1-20 kilohertz
4. serve as a form of communication among trees

Question 164: The word “parched” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                     .

A. dehydrated B. recovered    C. damaged     D. burned

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.

Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.

The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.

Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.

Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.

Question 165: The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to

1. indicate that the answers are not really important.
2. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
3. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
4. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.

Question 166: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to                 .

A. answers       B. questions                C. features                   D. jobs

Question 167: The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by               .

A. measuring  B. disposing    C. discovering D. considering

Question 168: According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city?

A. advertising B. retail sales C. law D. plumbing

Question 169: In paragraph 5, the author suggests that                         

1. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
2. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
3. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
4. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.

Question 170: Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?

1. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
2. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
3. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
4. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.

Question 171: According to the passage, which of the following is true?

1. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
2. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
3. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.

4. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Rain forests cover less than six percent of the earth’s area, but they have 100,000 kinds of all the kinds of plants on the earth. Three-fourths of known kinds of plants and animals call the rain forest their home. Twenty percent of our different kinds of medicine comes from rain forests. The glues on an envelope and in shoes come from tropical plants. Rain forests provide materials for hundreds of other products.

Rain forests are also very important to the world’s climate. The Amazon rain forest alone receives about thirty to forty percent of the total rainfall on the earth and products about the same percentage of the world oxygen. Some scientists believe that the decreasing size of rain forests will affect the climate on the earth, making it uncomfortable or even dangerous for life.

Saving rain forests is an international problem. One country, or even a few countries, cannot solve the problem alone. The nations of the world must work together to find a solution before it is too late.

Question 172: What percent of the earth’s area do rain forests cover?

A. Only 6 percent        B. over 6 percent         C. 20 percent D. less than 6 percent

Question 173: How many known kinds of plants and animals call the rain forests their home?

A. 4/3              B. 3/4              C. 40/3            D. 3/40

Question 174: What percent of the total rainfall on the earth does the Amazon rain forests receive?

A. exactly 30 to 40      B. about 30 to 40        C. about 20 to 30        D. less than 30 Question 175: According to some scientists, what will the decreasing size of rain forests affect on the earth?

A. climate        B. plants          C. oxygen        D. only animals

Question 176: According to the passage, what must the nations of the world do to find a solution?

A. work together                     B. save their lives

C. work alone                          D. save rain forests only

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

THE PEOPLE BEHIND THE MUSIC

Think for a moment about the last music album you bought. Most likely, you’ll think of the singer or band that made you want to buy the album. You might even know the name of the guitar player or the drummer. Those talented performers, however, are only some of the people in the music industry work behind the scenes, but the roles they play in the musical progress are very important. Songwriters: Songs begin with the songwriter. Some songwriters work alone, but many work in teams that combine the talents of a lyricist, who writes the words to songs, and an instrumentalist, often a piano player or guitarist, who writes the music. Many of today’s pop stars work with songwriters. For example, some of Lady Gaga’s biggest hits were written by Nadir Khayat, also known “RedOne”. Some songwriting teams have become very famous, such as Mike Stock, Matt Aitken, and Pete Waterman, who were responsible for many big 1980s pop hits.

Arrangers: After a song has been written, music arrangers make it more appealing by deciding which instruments will be used, what tempo, or speed, the song will have, and whether the song should have a lower or higher pitch. A good arrangement can bring a song to life and make it a classic.

Studio Musicians: Not every singer or instrumentalist can be a star, and many work in the background as studio musicians. These artists are not a part of any one musical group. Instead, they are hired for recording sessions that eventually become the albums you buy, as well as soundtracks for television shows, movies, and radio ads.

Recording Engineers: Recording engineers also play a major role in creating the final sound that you hear. First, these engineers set up the recording studio, the room where the performers play, placing musicians and microphones in exactly the right places to get the best sound. Next, they use electronic equipment, such multi-track recorders, to capture the music. Finally, long after the musicians have gone home, recording engineers use a mixing board to balance the melodies and rhythms of each musician, and sometimes to incorporate special sound effects or additional tracks. Many people make a living with music. You may not recognize all of their names, but all of them work together to create the songs you love to listen to.

Question 177: Which piece of equipment is used at the end of the recording process?

A. a multi-track recorder        B. a guitar or piano

C. a mixing board                   D. a microphone

Question 178: Which sentence is NOT true about studio musicians?

1. They work in the recording studio.

2. They earn money for each session that they do.
3. They are not as famous as the artists they play for.
4. They usually support or play for the same artist.

Question 179: Which of the following do music arrangers probably NOT do?

A. decide the price of the CD B. decide how fast or slow a song will be      C. decide which instrument to use         D. decide which pitch to use

Question 180: The word “classic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _                .

A. a traditional song    B. a famous song        C. a lively song           D. a modern song

Question 181: Which statement would the author probably agree with?

1. Studio musicians would be more successful as members of one musical group.
2. It is important to buy albums made by performing artists who are not yet famous.
3. Having a famous person sing a song will usually make it successful.
4. People are often unaware of the amount of work that goes into creating music.

Question 182: Why does the author mention Lady Gaga?

1. to give an example of a star who works with a songwriter.
2. to explain why she does not write her own songs.
3. to compare her with other talented songwriters.
4. to persuade readers to buy her music.

Question 183: The article is mainly about                 .

1. people who play a background role in creating music
2. pop stars who write the biggest hits
3. songwriting teams who combine their talents
4. instrumentalists who work as hired musicians

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The Rise of Robots

As kids, our grandparents frequently scared us by talking about how difficult life was when they were growing up. They mentioned walking miles to school in the snow, or doing hours of manual labour for little pay. Life has changed greatly since then, and it seems to get easier year by year. In fact, with the help of robots we soon might have to do much at all. But is this a good thing?

By 2030, it’s estimated that robotics will be a $$10 billion business worldwide. Companies are already starting to integrate them into the workforce. The electronics manufacturer Foxconn is drawing up plans to launch a factory within the next 10 years that’s completely staffed by robot workers. Meanwhile, an American company Briggo has invented a robot that serves gourmet- quality coffee to customers. With the push of a button it will crush coffee beans, measure exact quantities of water, and even wave a steam wand to ensure customers get the perfect cream on top. Unlike human baristas, it can serve multiple drinks at once and work all day and night without a break.

Robots are also invading our homes. The Rooma is a mini-robot that vacuums rooms automatically according to a schedule. The Robomow is a device that will cut the grass for you while you sit in the shade. Then there’s the Nanda clocky, an alarm clock that makes sure that even the deepest sleepers get up on time. The clock is attached to a pair of wheels, and it will randomly move around the room. Once you finally catch it, you’re probably too awake to hit the snooze button. Although these early home robots are somewhat basic, they will likely become more capable as times goes on.

Although robots certainly help us to eliminate tedious tasks, many people are concerned about a future filled with robots. Some fear that humanity will start to decline if machines do everything for us. Others have even warned about the robot rebellion, in which robots become so smart that they may decide to turn on their masters. These ideas may seem a bit far-fetched, but there are certainly lots of questions that need to be answered before everyone opens up to the idea of a robotic future.

Question 184: How is Briggo’s invention superior to human workers?

1. It is more knowledgeable about coffee-making.
2. It is better at conversation.
3. It never has to stop.
4. It can operate machinery.

Question 185: What would happen if you pressed the snooze button?

1. You would have to wake up immediately
2. The alarm clock would turn off forever
3. The alarm would stop, but go off again soon
4. Nothing would happen at all

Question 186: Which of the following is NOT true about the concerns over roboties?

1. It takes some time for people to accept robots.
2. Robots may do some harm to humans
3. The idea of robotics may seem far-fetched.
4. Robots may be dominant at the workplace.

Question 187: The word “tedious” in the last paragraph mostly means                      .

A. boring         B. difficult      C. intelligent D. expensive

Question 188: What is the last paragraph mainly about?

1. Some reasons why people don’t accept robots yet.
2. A very amusing science-fiction story about robots.
3. How people in local communities are supporting robots.
4. A few of the lastest robots on the market today.

Question 189: According to the first paragraph, how is the life changed since our parents time?

1. The education system has got much worse
2. Things aren’t as hard as they once were
3. Children have to walk longer distance to school
4. It hasn’t changed much at all

Question 190: All of the following are true about robots EXCEPT that                      .

1. they can work all day and night without break
2. they have greater capabilities
3. they can draw up plans to launch a story
4. they can do boring tasks for human

Question 191: We can infer from the passage that                      .

1. present domestic robots can work without any programs
2. the communication will decline with the use of robots
3. a robot rebellion can happen daily
4. robotics will have been a major business by 2030

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

As a result of pollution, Lake Erie, on the borders of the USA and Canada, is now without any living things. Pollutions in water are not simply a matter of “poisons” killing large numbers of fish

overnight. Very often the effects of pollution are not noticed for many months or years because the first organisms to be affected are either plants or plankton. But these organisms are the food of fish and birds and other creatures. When this food disappears, the fish and birds die in this way a whole food chain can be wiped out, and it is not until dead fish and water birds are seen at the river’s edge or on the sea shore that people realize what is happening. Where do the substances which pollute the water come from? There are two main sources – sewage and industrial waste. As more detergent is used in the home, so more of it is finally put into our rivers, lakes and seas. Detergents harm water birds dissolving the natural substance which keep their feather waterproof. Sewage itself, if it is not properly treated, makes the water dirty and prevents all forms of life in rivers and the sea from receiving the oxygen they need. Industrial waste is even more harmful since there are many high poisonous things in it, such as copper and lead. So, if we want to stop this pollution, the answer is simple, sewage and industrial waste must be made clean before flowing into the water. It may already be too late to save some rivers and lakes, but others can still be saved if the correct action is taken at once.

Question 192: According to the passage, the way to stop water pollution is             .

1. to make the waste material harmless.
2. to realize the serious situation clearly.
3. to make special room in the sea for our rubbish.
4. to put oxygen into the river.

Question 193: Which of the following is harmful according to the passage?

A. industrial waste      B. water for cleaning C. Chemicals D. All of the above

Question 194: Pollution in water is noticed           _.

1. when the first organisms is affected.
2. as soon as the balance of nature is destroyed.
3. when poisons are poured into water.
4. when a good many fish and birds die.

Question 195: The living things die because there is no              in the lake or river.

A. water          B. poison         C. oxygen        D. fish

Question 196: What is the meaning of “waterproof” in the second paragraph?

A. not allowing water to go through B. covered with water

C. full of water                       D. cleaned by water

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

How to protect children Web fans from unsuitable material online while encouraging them to use the Internet has long been discussed in the US.

For some parents, the Internet can seem like a jungle, filled with danger for their children. But jungles contain wonders as well as hazard and with good guides, some education, and a few precautions, the wilds of the Internet can be safely navigated. “Kids have to be online. If we tell our kids they can’t be allowed to surf the Internet, we’re cutting them off from their future,” said an expert. Most kids have started to use search engines. Many of them are great for finding tons of interesting Internet sites, and they can also locate places where you might not want your kids to go. There are search engines designed just for kids. A certain software contains only sites that have been selected as safe. The most popular way would be to use what is known as a “content screener”. But this can’t be wholly reliable, and the best thing parents can do is to talk to their kids and let them know what is OK or not OK to see or do on the Internet. Another way is that mum or dad is nearby when the child is surfing the Internet. A few other tips as follows:

Don’t put the PC in a child’s room but keep it in an area where mum or dad can keep an eye on things. That also makes the Internet more of a family activity.

Ask your child what he or she has been doing and about any friends they make online.

Tell your child not to give online strangers personal information, especially like address and phone number.

And tell your children never to talk to anyone they meet on line over the phone, send them anything, accept anything from them or agree to meet with them unless you go along.

Question 197: Which of the following is right according to the passage?

1. Children’s not having access to Internet may have effect on their progress.
2. Searching engines can help children to select materials fit for them.
3. Using a content screener is most reliable for keeping children having access to Internet.
4. Surfing the Internet is the best method of educating children.

Question 198: The passage is mainly about the subject of               .

A. Internet in America.                       B. appreciating Internet.

C. opposing children’s on-line.           D. American children going on-line.

Question 199: According to the passage, we can infer that               .

1. Internet is a jungle full of danger
2. a child who is on-line is in danger
3. Internet contains a lot of harmful sites
4. soft wares fit for children want programming

Question 200: The best way to protect children from improper material is               .

1. to buy some search engines for the children
2. to talk to the children and persuade them to tell right from wrong
3. to be nearby when they are surfing the Internet
4. to install a content screener on the computer

Question 201: The word “hazard” in the passage means               .

A. peril            B. loss C. luckD. instruction

Mark the letter a, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest meaning to each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to each of them

Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbor wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landslide or volcanic eruption. When the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the wave. Most tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32.500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunami have struck the Hawaiian Islands.

A tsunami can have wave lengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometres across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it may be 15 metres high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements.

Tsunami should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge killed an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which truck south and southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.

Question 202: What does the word concentric mean?

A. Wavy                      B. Having many centres

C. Having a common centre D. A ring

Question 203: What will happen when an object is dropped into the water?

A. Volcanic eruption may be a consequence B. Some concentric waves will be generated

C. There will be seismic activity        D. Earthquake may happen

Question 204: What is the zone of volcanoes and seismic activity in the world called?

A. The concentric wave          B. the tsunami

C. The Pacific Ocean              D. The Ring of Fire

Question 205: What is the greatest speed of tsunami traveling across the deep ocean?

A. 200 kilometres an hour      B. 700 kilometres an hour

C. 800 kilometres an hour      D. 150,000 kilometres an hour

Question 206: How high is the wave of the tsunami when it reaches the shore?

A. 100 metres B. 200 metres C. half a metreD. fifteen metres

Question 207: How are tsunami capable of obliterating coastal settlements?

1. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
2. They are a metre high or more.
3. They travel hundreds of kilometers.
4. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high.

Question 208: What killed an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh?

A. a tsunami.               B. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge.

C. A high tide.            D. flooding.

Question 209: Which of the following is NOT true?

1. Tsunami only occurs in Asia.
2. A cyclone along with storm surge happened in Asia in 1970.
3. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
4. Storm surges causes extensive coastal flooding.

Mark the letter a, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest meaning to each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to each of them

It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may

render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species become extinct at the same time- a mass extinction. One of the best- known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when appropriately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinction can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the ocean. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

Question 210: The underlined word “ultimately” is closest in meaning to

A. eventually  B. unfortunately          C. dramatically           D. exceptionally

Question 211: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?

1. They are no longer in existence.
2. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
3. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
4. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.

Question 212: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from repid ecological change?

A. Introduction of new species           B. Competition among species

C. Availability of food resources        D. Temperature changes